One question I have regarding licensing.

How do copyrights apply to code that is so modified that it contains 
absolutely no original code?

Saying this happens as a natural course of events over time, not an 
arbitrarily rewritten piece of software. Or would either event be 
interpretted differently?

Is this an area which is tested or untested in courts?

Just trying to gain an understanding of how such is percieved or 
interpreted.

Thanks,

Jimmie Houchin